100+ Indian Polity MCQs for Competitive Exams [PDF]
Here, you’ll find 100+ Indian Polity MCQs which will be immensely helpful for Competitive Exams like UPSC, State PSC, SSC, Railways, CDS, NDA, Banking & Others Exams. We’ve also provided the Free PDF of this article at the end, do check it out.
Indian Polity is an integral part of almost every competitive exam. It’s a scoring subject and through practice, you can achieve mastery over it. To help you with that, in this article we’ve included 100+ Indian polity questions for all competitive exams. All these questions are taken from previous year’s papers of various competitive exams. So, practice these questions to score maximum in Indian Polity.
Q1. The number of members included in the constitution drafting committee was:
A. Seven
B. Nine
C. Eleven
D. Thirteen
Ans: A
Q2. Under which article, the President of India can proclaim constitutional emergency?
A. Article 32
B. Article 349
C. Article 356
D. Article 360
Ans: C
Q3. Who among the following is not a member of any of the two houses of our country?
A. Prime Minister
B. Finance Minister
C. President
D. Railway Minister
Ans: C
Q4. Fundamental duties are mentioned in which of the following part of Indian Constitution?
A. Part II B
B. Part III
C. Part V
D. Part IV A
An: D
Q5. Which article of the Indian constitution has the provision for National Emergency?
A. Article 350
B. Article 352
C. Article 312
D. Article 280
Ans: B
Q6. Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
A. Prime Minister of India
B. Council of Minister
C. Judge of Supreme Court
D. President of India
Ans: D
Q7. Which article of the constitution allows the centre to form new states?
A. Article 3
B. Article 4
C. Article 5
D. Article 6
Ans: A
Q8. What is the minimum age for becoming a Governor of state in India?
A. 30 years
B. 25 years
C. 35 years
D. 45 years
Ans: C
Q9. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Cultural and Educational Rights granted?
A. Article 29 and 31
B. Article 29 and 32
C. Article 29 and 30
D. Article 30 and 31
Ans: C
Q10. Civil servants are not permitted to become:
A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. Vice-Chancellors of Universities
C. Heads of Commissions of Enquiry
D. Members of Parliament
Ans: D
Q11. The National River Conservation Directorate is under:
A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Environment and Forests
C. Ministry of Earth Sciences
D. Ministry of Water Resources
Ans: B
Q12. Right to Information is:
A. Fundamental right
B. Legal right
C. Neither fundamental right nor legal right
D. Both fundamental right as well as legal Right
Ans: A
Q13. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the
A. Preamble to the Constitution
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Ninth Schedule
Ans: B
Q14. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was:
A. Added by the first Amendment
B. Added by the 24th Amendment
C. Added by the 42nd Amendment
D. A part of the original Constitution
Ans: A
Q15. What is the literal meaning of ‘Certiorari’?
A. We command
B. To have the body of
C. To forbid
D. To be certified (or) to be informed
Ans: D
Q16. Which of the following are constituents of the Indian Parliament?
i. The President
ii. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
iii. The House of the People (Lok Sabha)
A. (ii) and (iii)
B. (i) and (ii)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
Q17. Who among the following is the executive head of India?
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Cabinet Secretary
D. Finance Secretary
Ans: B
Q18. Anti-defection law is given in which schedule of Indian constitution?
A. Second Schedule
B. Tenth Schedule
C. Third Schedule
D. Fourth Schedule
Ans: B
Q19. Which of the following has the supreme command of the Indian Defence Forces?
A. Prime Minister of India
B. Defence Minister of India
C. Council of Ministers of India
D. President of India
Ans: D
Q20. Who administers the oath of the President of India?
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister of India
D. Vice President of India
Ans: B
Q21. By Convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of India?
A. An eminent journalist of India
B. A senior Civil Services Officer
C. A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India
D. The Union Minister of Information And Broadcasting
Ans: C
Q22. Appointments for All India Services are made by ___________
A. UPSC
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Parliament
Ans: B
Q23. Who is the final authority for interpreting the Indian Constitution?
A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court of India
C. President
D. Attorney General of India
Ans: B
Q24. The Residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution rests with
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliament
D. States
Ans: C
Q25. Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?
A.The Prime Minister
B.The Member of NITI Aayog
C. The Chief Ministers of States
D. The President of India
Ans: D
Q26. The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers
A. with the consent of the Speaker
B. only under emergency conditions
C. on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
D. on his own
Ans: C
Q27. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under __________
A. Legal rights
B. Fundamental rights
C. Human rights
D. Natural rights
Ans: B
Q28. The term District Judge is mentioned in which of the following Article of Constitution?
A. Article 230
B. Article 231
C. Article 232
D. Article 233
Ans: D
Q29. _________ elects the President and the Vice President and removes judges of Supreme Court and High Court.
A. Ministry of Defence
B. Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister’s Office
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India
Ans: B
Q30. Which parliamentary committee in India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition?
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Estimates Committee
C. Privileges Committee
D. Public Accounts Committee
Ans: D
Q31. ________ amends the Constitution.
A. Ministry of Defence
B. Prime Minister’s Office
C. Parliament
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India
Ans: C
Q32. How many Fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
D. Eight
Ans: B
Q33. Which of the following Article/Articles cannot be suspended even during emergency?
A. Article 19
B. Article 20 and 21
C. Article 22 and 23
D. Article 24 and 25
Ans: B
Q34. Which of the following is not correctly matched under the Constitution of India?
A. The Panchayats——-Part IX
B. The Municipalities—-Part IX A
C. The Cooperative Societies—-Part IX B
D. Tribunals———Part X
Ans: D
Q35. Choose the correct option:
A. A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
B. A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha
C. A Money Bill may be introduced in both houses of Parliament
D. A Money Bill cannot be endorsed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: A
Q36. “Population control and family planning” is listed in the _______ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.
A. Union
B. State
C. Global
D. Concurrent
Ans: D
Q37. “Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation” is listed in the _______ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.
A. Union
B. State
C. Global
D. Concurrent
Ans: A
Q38. Which of the following states has a bicameral legislature?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Goa
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Maharashtra
A. (c)
B. (b)
C. (d)
D. (a)
Ans: C
Q39. _______ is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not doing legal duty and thereby is infringing on the right of an individual.
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. Quo Warranto
Ans: B
Q40. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution includes abolition of untouchability?
A. Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom
B. Right to Freedom of Religion
C. Right to Equality
D. Cultural and Educational Rights
Ans: C
Q41. Impeachment of President of India can be initiated________
A. Only in the Lok Sabha
B. Only in the Rajya Sabha
C. in either house of Parliament
D. in Supreme Court
Ans: C
Q42. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution states that all persons shall be equally protected by the laws of the country?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Freedom of Religion
Ans: A
Q43. “Betting and gambling” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.
A. Union
B. State
C. Global
D. Concurrent
Ans: B
Q44. _______ means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice.
A. Original Jurisdiction
B. Writ Jurisdiction
C. Appellate Jurisdiction
D. Advisory Jurisdiction
Ans: D
Q45. “Forests” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.
A. Union
B. State
C. Global
D. Concurrent
Ans: D
Q46. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution includes equal access to shops, bathing, ghats, hotels, etc?
A. Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom
B. Right to Freedom of Religion
C. Right to Equality
D. Cultural and Educational Rights
Ans: C
Q47. __________ writ is issued by a higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction.
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. Quo Warranto
Ans: C
Q48. “Trade unions” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
A. Union
B. State
C. Global
D. Concurrent
Ans: D
Q49. During the Proclamation of Emergency the term of Lok Sabha may be extended at a time for a period not exceeding
A. 2 Years
B. 1 Year
C. 1.5 Years
D. Depends on the Discretion of President of India
Ans: B
Q50. The Constituent Assembly of India was founded in the year ________
A. 1940
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1950
Ans: B
Q51. Means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court without going to the lower courts before that.
A. Original Jurisdiction
B. Writ Jurisdiction
C. Appellate Jurisdiction
D. Advisory Jurisdiction
Ans: A
Q52. _________ means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice.
A. Original Jurisdiction
B. Writ Jurisdiction
C. Appellate Jurisdiction
D. Advisory Jurisdiction
Ans: D
Q53. Under which of the following jurisdiction can any individual, whose fundamental right has been violated, can directly move the Supreme Court for remedy?
A. Original Jurisdiction
B. Writ Jurisdiction
C. Appellate Jurisdiction
D. Advisory Jurisdiction
Ans: B
Q54. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution allows citizens to move the court if they believe that any of their Fundamental Rights have been violated by the State?
A. Cultural and Educational Rights
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Freedom of Religion
Ans: B
Q55. Which is the 25th high court in India?
A. Allahabad High Court
B. Andhra Pradesh High Court
C. Bombay High Court
D. Calcutta High Court
Ans: B
Q56. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?
A. To abide by constitution and respect the National Flag
B. To promote harmony and brotherhood
C. To uphold and protect the sovereignty
D. Abolition of titles except military and academic
Ans: D
Q57. _________ means that the Supreme Court will reconsider the case and the legal issues involved in it.
A. Original Jurisdiction
B. Writ Jurisdiction
C. Appellate Jurisdiction
D. Advisory Jurisdiction
Ans: C
Q58. Which article can be used by The President of India to declare financial emergency?
A. Article 32
B. Article 349
C. Article 360
D. Article 365
Ans: C
Q59. Which article was referred to as the ‘the heart and soul’ of the constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
A. Article 4
B. Article 32
C. Article 28
D. Article 30
Ans: B
Q60. Which amendment of the Constitution of India increased the age of retirement of High Court judges from 60 to 62 years?
A. 10th
B. 12th
C. 15th
D. 245th
Ans: C
Q61. How many times a person can be elected as the President of India?
A. One time
B. Two times
C. Three times
D. No bar
Ans: D
Q62. Which of the following provision needs a special majority in Parliament?
A. Change in Fundamental Rights
B. Creation of New States
C. Abolition of Legislative Councils in State
D. Rules and Procedures in Parliament
Ans: A
Q63. Who is the custodian of Contingency Fund of India?
A. The Prime Minister
B. Judge of Supreme Court
C. The President
D. The Finance Minister
Ans: C
Q64. India has taken the concept of ‘Judicial Review’ from which country’s constitution?
A. United States
B. United Kingdom
C. Canada
D. Ireland
Ans: A
Q65. In the Indian Parliamentary System, ‘Vote on Account’ is valid for how many months (except the year of elections)?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
Ans: A
Q66. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed for how many years?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 5
Ans: C
Q67. Which of the following Amendments is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’ of India?
A. 7th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 74th Amendment
Ans: B
Q68. Which of the following right has been removed from fundamental rights and converted to a simple legal right?
A. Right to life and personal liberty
B. Right to property
C. Right to education
D. Right to freedom of religion
Ans: B
Q69. Who among the following were the members of the drafting committee of the constitution?
A. Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar
D. Rajendra Prasad
Ans: C
Q70. How many members of upper house (Rajya Sabha) can be nominated by President of India?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Ans: B
Q71. Which of the following is justiciable in nature?
A. Fundamental Duties
B. Directive principles of state policy
C. Fundamental Rights
D. None of these
Ans: C
Q72. In Indian constitution, the method of election of President has been taken from which country?
A. Britain
B. USA
C. Ireland
D. Australia
Ans: C
Q73. How many types of writ are there in the Indian Constitution?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Ans: A
Q74. Part IV of Constitution of India deals with which of the following?
A. The Union
B. The States
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans: D
Q75. What is the literal meaning of the term “Quo-Warranto”?
A. We command
B. To forbid
C. By what authority (or) warrant
D. None of these
Ans: C
Q76. How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Indian constitution?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Eleven
Ans: D
Q77. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the_____
A. Elected members of legislative assemblies of the states
B. Members of the Lok Sabha
C. People
D. Members of the legislative council
Ans: A
Q78. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval
A. Within 1 month
B. Within 2 months
C. Within 6 months
D. Within 1 year
Ans: A
Q79. Which of the following authority is elected on the basis of proportional representation in India?
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Governor
D. Lok Sabha Speaker
Ans: B
Q80. Which of the following is not provided by the constitution of India?
A. Election Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Public Service Commission
D. Planning Commission
Ans: D
Q81. India is a republic. What does republic mean?
(a) The ruler is a King or Queen.
(b) The ruler is a direct descendant of a King or Queen.
(c) The Head of State is elected indirectly by its people.
(d) The day India became independent.
A. (d)
B. (a)
C. (c)
D. (b)
Ans: C
Q82. Which is the oldest High Court in India?
(a) Bombay High Court
(b) Madras High Court
(c) Allahabad High Court
(d) Calcutta High Court
A. (d)
B. (b)
C. (a)
D. (c)
Ans: A
Q83. Which of the following is not an essential element of a federal form of government?
A. Written Constitution
B. Independent Judiciary
C. Division of Power
D. Separation of Powers
Ans: D
Q84. Who recognizes the political parties in India?
A. President of India
B. Election Commission of India
C. Ministry of Law and Justice
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: B
Q85. According to Article 85 ( 1) of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha must meet at least how many times?
A. Three times each year with no more than four months between sessions.
B. At least once a year.
C. Four times each year,
D. Twice a year with no more than six months between sessions.
Ans: D
Q86. What is the minimum age requirement for the appointment of the Prime Minister of India
(a) 25 years, if he/she is a member of Rajya Sabha
(b) 25 years, if he/she is a member of Lok Sabha
(c) 30 years, if he/she is a member of Rajya Sabha
(d) 30 years, if he/she is a member of Lok Sabha
A. (c)
B. (d)
C. (a)
D. (b)
Ans: D
Q87. Choose the correct statement stated in the Constitution of India :
A. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Federation of States.
B. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
C. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Quasi federal State.
D. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Unitary State.
Ans: B
Q88. _________ can give the Union parliament power to make laws on matters included in the State list.
A. Ministry of Defence
B. Prime Minister’s Office
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. Rajya Sabha
Ans: D
Q89. Which of the following is not an eligibility to be the vice president of India?
(a) Indian citizen
(b) Age more than 35 years
(c) Member of Lok Sabha
(d) Member of Rajya Sabha
A. (d)
B. (c)
C. (a)
D. (b)
Ans: B
Q90. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the-
(a) Members of legislative assemblies of states
(b) Members of the Lok Sabha
(c) By the people of India
(d) Members of the legislative council
A. (d)
B. (a)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Ans: B
Q91. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from
A. The French Constitution
B. The Swiss Constitution
C. The Constitution of United States of America
D. The British Constitution
Ans: D
Q92. Name the Constitutional Amendment Act that was passed to provide free and compulsory education of all children between 6 and 14 years of age.
A. 86th Amendment Act.
B. 84th Amendment Act.
C. 83rd Amendment Act.
D. 82nd Amendment Act.
Ans: A
Q93. Which Constitutional Amendment Act discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State legislatures?
A. 104th Amendment Act.
B. 103rd Amendment Act.
C. 102nd Amendment Act.
D. 101st Amendment Act.
Ans: A
Q94. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament is appointed by the
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
B. Prime Minister of India.
C. President of India.
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Ans: A
Q95. If the post of both the President and the Vice President of India falls vacant who discharges the functions of the President till the new incumbent is elected?
A. The Prime Minister of India
B. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
D. The Attorney General of India
Ans: C
Q96. Choose the correct Amendment to the Indian Constitution which has delinked the Right to Property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights,
A. 43rd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 45th‘Amendment
D. 46th Amendment
Ans: B
Q97. Who is known as the Father of the Lok Sabha?
A. G. V. Mavalankar
B. Rabi Ray
C. Balram Jakhar
D. P. A. Sangma
Ans: A
Q98. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj institution?
A. Gram Sabha
B. Gram Panchayat
C. Nyaya panchayat
D. Gram Co-operative Society
Ans: D
Q99. Which of the following committees is not concerned with Panchayati Raj?
A. Santhanam Committee
B. Ashok Mehta Committee
C. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
D. V.K.R.V.Rao Committee
Ans: A
Q100. Who is called the Guardian of Public Purse?
A. President
B. Comptroller and Auditor General
C. Parliament
D. Council of Ministers
Ans: B
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